[quote name='KingSpike']Alright, the question asked is a little old, but I'll see what I can do to answer it. Don't take this as a definitive answer though
First, this question assumes that the Bible appeared all at once. It didn't at all. Scholars are not sure whether the law (such as the Holiness Code or the Ten Commandments) came first or if the 8th century BCE prophets came first. We honestly just don't know. Perhaps the prophets spoke of morality and social justice that later was used to form the Law, or perhaps the Law came in some form and then the prophets would point to it as an example for what people should follow.
Furthermore, there is proof that entire books were not written by the same author. The book of Isaiah is usually separated in to two (more often three) parts.
Other books in the Bible (like the letters of Paul) were not intended to be collected in to a book. Paul wrote them to a specific church for a specific reason. Later they were collected and used and became part of canon.
The Torah/Pentateuch (also known as the Old Testament to Christians) is written in Hebrew. The New Testament is written in Greek. Of course, there is the Septuagint which is the OT translated in to Greek. Interesting fact: there are parts of the Greek version of a book that are not in the Hebrew, and vice versa. So which one is the most accurate portrayal of the original book?
Only 7 of Paul's letters are considered "uncontested." This means that pretty much all scholars agree that Paul wrote those letters. The other ones scholars are unsure of. While this doesn't have much to do with the translation, it shows that one cannot easily say with absolute certainty what the Bible is talking about. But I'm not done yet :lol:
Here's one example of an actual translation issue. In the New Testament, 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 specifically, you will see a vice list. Two words,
arsenokoitai and
malakoi are often translated as "homosexual perverts," "homosexuals," "male prostitutes," or "sodomites." These are just a couple examples.
Well, first we have no idea what
arsenokoitai actually means. Another vice list uses the word but does not contain any other sexual vices. So why would it mean something purely sexual? Other suggestions that it means "homosexual" or something along those lines is the etymology of the word.
Arsen means "male" and
koitai means "bedroom" or the active partner in sexual intercourse. So often the terms have been translated as the dominant and passive participators in a homosexual act.
But etymology is the history of a word, not its meaning. Do I have to be located underneath a stand to understand something? No.
Malakoi can mean all sorts of things, from the richness of food to the gentle breeze to a coward or someone who is afraid to commit suicide. So why is it translated as something related to homosexuality?
The King James Version is a very beautiful translation. But it often isn't very accurate when it comes to translations. The above is one such example.
Well, that's all I have for now. I'll see if I can think of some other stuff (my brain kind of fried halfway through). I'll post it if I can think of it.[/QUOTE]
Nice post.