I think that tha point that Gamedude is trying to make is this: though current mathematics allows only for answers right and wrong, to say that this current incarnation of mathematical understanding is infallible would be presumptuous. To wit, future understandings of numbers and numerals may yield new options for considering equations of dispute, like these in question.
While that's true, mathematical laws and reasoning are much more persuasive than " That's wrong because I think it's wrong.".
Of course, this is less likely to be proven wrong, as it is a quirk in the format of mathematics, and a misunderstanding on the part of most people how fractional sums are rendered. As this is a purely mathematical concept, it's much less likely that math is faulty as a base of reasoning for this. You're not applying mathematics to a wholy unknown subject, which you may or may not have full knowledge of. This is math applying itself upon itself. If you disregard this as a basis for the forumulation and proof of concepts, you must divorce yourself from almost all mathematics, as any non-trival mathematical concept must be proven, and the only to prove mathematical concepts is mathematically.
Now, I'm not getting on either side fo the fence here, because I completely blow at math. However, as someone with extensive studies in philosophy, politics, and sociology under his belt, I can state that the stubborness of some number-crunchers is staggering.
Math is not infallible. However, logic isn't either.
As for the Descartes debate, I will offer this:
Descartes' statements regarding "I think, therefore I am" refer to one conciousness's awareness of one's own being, and therefore creating an internal legitimacy; they do not refer to perceptions of one's conciousness by others. Descartes was not making these judgements reflecting the possibility that HIS conciousness could be the ONLY conciousness, and that all other 'beings' were merely his own self-creations.
Yes, but he didn't tell me to prove TO HIM that I existed. He only told me to prove that I existed, and wasn't a figment of his immagination. Therefore, I think Descartes statement's use is quite proper in this instance. Had he asked for me to prove TO HIM that I existed, it wouldn't be.